# Thomas' Confession: My Lord and My God *John 20:28* **Strength:** Very Strong | **Tone:** Excellent | **Topic:** Deity of Christ ## Doorstep Question > "In John 20:28, Thomas sees the risen Jesus and says 'My Lord and my God.' Your own NWT says Thomas 'said to him' — directly to Jesus. Jesus doesn't correct him. Why not?" ## JW Claim Thomas was exclaiming in shock — like saying 'Oh my God!' He was not calling Jesus God. Jesus is the Son of God, not God himself. ## Strategy Open your NWT to John 20:28. It reads: 'In answer Thomas said to him: "My Lord and my God!"' Point out three things in their own translation: (1) 'In answer' — Thomas is responding to Jesus' invitation to touch his wounds. This is a reply, not an outburst. (2) 'Said to him' — the Greek is eipen autō (dative), meaning Thomas addressed these words directly to Jesus, not to God in heaven. (3) Jesus responds 'Because you have seen me, have you believed?' — Jesus commends Thomas' faith. If Thomas had just blasphemed by calling a creature 'my God,' Jesus would have corrected him, just as the angel corrects John in Revelation 22:8-9. Then read John 20:31: 'these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ.' Thomas' confession is the climax of John's Gospel — the moment John has been building toward since chapter 1. ## Key Insight Even the NWT says Thomas 'said to him' — directly to Jesus — 'My Lord and my God.' Jesus accepted it. An angel would not. A faithful creature would not. Only God would. ## JW Responses & Counters ### Response 1 **JW says:** "Thomas was exclaiming in surprise — like saying 'Oh my God!' — not calling Jesus God." **Counter:** Your own NWT says Thomas 'said to him' — eipen autō in Greek — which is the dative case meaning 'addressed to him.' This is not an exclamation into the air. Thomas spoke these words to Jesus. And Jesus answered by commending his belief, not correcting his theology. If a devout Jew called a creature 'my God' in the presence of that creature, it would be the worst blasphemy imaginable. Jesus' response would have to be 'Worship God, not me' — but instead he says 'blessed are those who believe.' ### Response 2 **JW says:** "John 20:31 says Jesus is the 'Son of God,' not God — that's the point of the whole Gospel." **Counter:** But what does 'Son of God' mean? In John's Gospel, this title is a deity claim. John 5:18 says the Jews sought to kill Jesus because 'he was calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.' In Jewish understanding, the Son of God is not less than God — it means sharing God's nature. John 20:28 and 20:31 are not contradictions; they are complementary. Thomas confesses Jesus' deity; John explains why he recorded it. ### Response 3 **JW says:** "Thomas used theos the same way John 1:1 does — Jesus is 'a god' to him, not Almighty God." **Counter:** The grammar in John 20:28 is the exact opposite of John 1:1c. Thomas says ho theos mou — "the God of me" — with the definite article. The Watchtower's own John 1:1 rule says the missing article in John 1:1c is what justifies translating it "a god." But ho theos here has the article. By the Watchtower's own grammatical principle, the article marks the true God. That is the same construction used in Isaiah 44:6 (LXX) for Yahweh: "I am the first and I am the last, and besides me there is no God." Apply the Watchtower's John 1:1 rule consistently and John 20:28 says Jesus is Almighty God. ### Response 4 **JW says:** "Thomas called Jesus 'Lord' and then addressed 'my God' to Jehovah in heaven." **Counter:** The Greek text has a single construction: 'The Lord of me and the God of me' (ho kurios mou kai ho theos mou). Both titles are addressed to the same person — 'him' (autō). Splitting them between two addressees requires ignoring the grammar. No Greek scholar — not even the NWT translators — renders it as two separate addresses. Their own translation says 'said to him' — singular, to Jesus. ### Response 5 **JW says:** "Thomas was facing Jesus, but his words 'my Lord and my God' were directed past Jesus to the Father in heaven — like an exclamation of awe." **Counter:** The Greek removes that option. The text reads "apekrithē Thōmas kai eipen autō" — "Thomas answered and said to him." The dative pronoun autō ("to him") has one antecedent in the sentence: Jesus, who has just invited Thomas to touch his wounds. If Thomas were addressing the Father, John would have written "said toward heaven" or simply omitted the indirect object — as he does when characters speak into the air. Then read the very next verse, John 20:29 (NWT): "Jesus said to him: 'Because you have seen me, have you believed?'" Jesus treats Thomas's confession as directed at himself — and commends his belief. If Thomas had been speaking past Jesus to the Father, that response makes no sense. ## What to Avoid Don't turn this into a Greek grammar lecture. The NWT's own English wording — 'In answer Thomas said to him' — is sufficient. Let the JW read it in their own Bible. ## Homework Read John 20:28 in its setting, from Thomas's absence and doubt to Jesus' reply, until you can retell the story from memory. Open the NWT at John 20:28 and confirm the wording yourself: 'In answer Thomas said to him: "My Lord and my God!"' The words 'said to him' carry the argument. Then read Revelation 22:8–9 for the contrast with an angel who refuses worship. Practise the doorstep question aloud, ending with 'Why not?', and resist turning it into a Greek lesson. Expect 'Thomas was exclaiming in surprise'; rehearse pointing back to 'said to him' and to verse 29, where Jesus answers by commending Thomas's belief. ## Next Moves - [Jesus Receives Worship](/arguments/worship-of-jesus.md) - [Jesus' Eternality](/arguments/psalm102-hebrews1.md) - ["My God and Your God" — John 20:17](/arguments/john20-17-my-god.md) - [Peter's Confession — 'The Son of the Living God'](/arguments/peter-confession-son-of-god.md) --- *Source: James White / Greg Koukl / Robert Bowman*